QUESTION LIST #18:
| To list of all questions on Website | The Bodies and Corpses & Eagles and Vultures of Matt 24:28 and Luke 17:37
Jackie asks:
ANSWER: Hi, you are correct about the Strong's entry. Thayer's refers to this bird as a vulture. However, I do not recommend the Thayer's (for why, see https://watchman.news/watchman-bs-site-arcv/adulter.htm ), they just happen to be right here. Below is the Strong's and the Thayer's definitions for the words:
Also, another key phase in the Scripture is "be gathered together" This is
one Greek word:
The reason that the above word is key is that Eagles do not naturally gather
together. Vultures eat in flocks, Eagles hunt alone. Therefore these birds
that gather together on the body are scavengers. Eagles will only eat
decaying carcasses when starving.
The whole thing has to do with context. The 'body' is dead because birds are
gathering about it. Birds do not naturally gather upon humans. The
'bird' is a
Vulture for the reasons outlined above. The Scripture itself is about death,
so it is no stretch to determine that the bodies are dead and are being
visited by a gathering of Vultures. Read the Scripture in this context and it
should flow clearly:
Incidentally, Eagles do not hunt at night, they rely upon their keen eyesight
which is useless at night. For further explanation, see the section of the
following study that will pop-up at
The
Rapture Theory; What Does God's Word Say About It?
My thoughts on this are that the word translated to Eagles was
used in the Bible for more than one kind of bird. In fact, it is even
translated as "angel" once.
Every occurrence of the Greek word #105 in the King James Bible:
According to Microsoft Encarta Encyclopedia 2004 the name Eagle
can and does refer to other birds:
But anyway, you no doubt caught the clue in the above Scriptures? In parallel
Scriptures, in Matthew 24 our Lord said carcase
(carcass by modern spelling), but in
Luke 17 He said body. There is no contradiction
there, the Scriptures cannot contradict themselves, for a carcase is a body and a body is a carcase. While a body can be
alive, a carcase never can; but a body can also be dead. Hence the additional
clarification in the Matthew Scripture.
Therefore to call the body a living thing would be to charge the Scriptures
with err when this same body is in another place called a carcase.
So now that we definitely know that these are
DEAD bodies where these birds are gathering at, that should lend the greater
weight to the "Eagles" in these verses being Vultures.
You may follow-up with rebuttal if you wish. I do
not discourage disagreement. Although my guess is that the above Matthew
Scripture 'nailed it' for you.
Back to list of questions at top of page Who is that coming on the cloud in Rev 14:14?
Kimberly asks:
ANSWER:
This One in Rev 14:14 is Jesus Christ, not antichrist. We see the exact phrase used of Christ earlier in the book:
You have to be careful not to 'add' to the Scriptures inadvertently when you
read them, for you unconsciously added "coming" to the Scripture where the
Scripture does not say "coming;" i.e., you said: "So who is that
coming on the cloud in Rev 14:14?", but the Scripture
speaks of no one coming to Earth:
This One is in Heaven, not Earth.
The vision is in Heaven pertaining to things that are being done on the Earth
PRIOR to the Second Advent:
The Seven Vials are yet to be poured out, so we know that the Second Advent
cannot have happened yet.
So, how can we be sure that He is Jesus Christ and not antichrist? Because He
does that which only Jesus can and shall do. The Scripture that we are
discussing (Rev 14:14 ff.) is actually the fulfillment of the prophecy below:
Who are these Reapers?
What have we left undone here? ... Oh, OK, In the above it says that the
reapers are the Angels but in Rev 14 it seems to say that Jesus does the
reaping. Does it really say that? Observe that Jesus reaps the Earth
BY (through the actions of) His Angels. His Angels are the ones who reap
MEN:
So just as that God destroyed Sodom and Gomorra By His angels
so too shall Jesus reap the Earth By His Angels.
Further insight can be gleaned from Bullinger's footnotes on Rev 14:15 & 16
regarding the word "thrust" in that it is two different Greek words in the
two verses. See
The Companion Bible
page 1903. The word "thrust" in verse 15 is pempo while the word
"thrust" in verse 16 is ballo. Definitions per the Strong's
Concordance are as follows:
For the differences between the two above words, see Bullinger's The Synonymous Words for
"Send", "Sent".
Also, the term Son of Man refers to Jesus as the
flesh man on Earth before His glorification, the term Son of God
refers to Jesus glorified and sat down in His place in Heaven (though it is
said of Jesus before He died and resurrected -- it simply denotes His
agency). Please do not confuse this as to be saying that Son of
God can never be used of Christ whilst He was on the Earth in
the flesh, for it is sometimes used of Him then, but always of His relation to
God Himself; i.e., as a title of His (Jesus') divinity. Whereas Son of Man
is a testament to His humanity, for though He indeed being God He was also born of
mankind by woman through a womb. Hence Thomas could say to/of Him
"My Lord and my God." (John 20:28).
Jesus' Father was God, of course; but Jesus on the Earth was also the Son of
flesh man (not of a specific particular flesh man - God forbid - but of flesh
humans, of mankind), i.e., a son (child) of mankind/humans. Jesus was of Adam
through Mary by genetic descent. Jesus in Heaven is God, for did He not tell
us "I and my Father are one" (John
10:30). Or put another way: When God is on the Earth dealing with men He is
Jesus Christ. It was He that Jacob wrestled with (Gen 32:24), it was He that Abraham paid
tithes to (Melchizedek/Melchisedec) (Heb 7 & Gen 14). God in flesh is Jesus Christ. See our
The Holy
Spirit & The Holy Trinity .
The term like unto the Son of Man is used in Rev
14:14 to let us know that it is this same Jesus who walked the Earth which has
authority over the reaping, but you notice that the commands come from
'another' in Heaven, i.e., "another angel came out
of the temple, crying with a loud voice" and "another
angel came out from the altar, which had power over fire; and cried with a
loud cry"; These are relaying the commands of God.
Do not confuse this particular reaping with the destructions that come with
Christ at His Second Advent, this (Rev 14) all happens well before the Second
Advent. As we saw earlier the entire chapter or rev 14 happens BEFORE even
one of the vials is poured out; but the Second Advent happens AFTER all the
vials are poured out. At the Second Advent we see the final destruction of
this world as we now know it:
One final point, if I may; you said:
But Rev 19:11 speaks of no one on any cloud, but
rather that Jesus is on a White Horse. In this you have confused two separate
judgments and events (Rev chpt. 14 and Rev chpt. 19) and made them one when
they are not one in the same event:
A careful reading of the Scriptures removes much difficulty. We cannot read
into them what is not there any more than we can omit that which is there.
Both lead to error.
Back to list of questions at top of page Who was this "Man Child" in Rev 12:5 that God took to His Throne?
Kimberly writes:
ANSWER: The Manchild is Jesus Christ.
The internal evidence in the Scripture declares who the Man Child is. Observe from verse five above and answer: Who is to "rule all nations with a rod of iron"?
Who was "was caught up unto God"?
Who is on "his throne"?
You asked/stated:
Why not? Jesus returns at the Second Advent FROM Heaven. Me thinks that you are taking that since Revelation chapter 12 comes before Rev 19 in the book that they happened in that order? That is not the case, in fact Rev 12 is an overview looking back to the first earth age and forward to the end of this age. Call it a parenthetical chapter if you wish. And I have absolutely no idea where you got that "the woman that gave birth to the man child was really Mystery Babylon." You may have visited some false teaching. There is much false teaching regarding the Man Child; some foolish ones think that THEY THEMSELVES are the Manchild!!! (I kid you not, they really believe this sinful lie) See: Anatomy of a False Doctrine Back to list of questions at top of page How could the fallen angels of Gen 6 have impregnated flesh women?
Jim writes:
ANSWER:
Hi Jim. What I specifically said was that they (ALL, even those born today a women) had no specific reproductive gender in Heaven. What I meant by that is that there are no female gender in Heaven, not that there were no male gender in Heaven.
Perhaps you are not considering that even women today were "sons of God"
before being born into this flesh world. And the women of today who go on to
heaven after they die shall not be female, they shall be sons of God;
otherwise the following Scripture means that no women today can be saved
(absurd of course) "He that
overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he
shall be my son." (Rev 21:7).
The fallen angels were simply angels who sinned by coming here before being
born of flesh; humans are angels that did come here through being born in the
flesh.
How could an angel mate with a human female? Probably the same way a human
male mates with a human female. You do remember that angels ate with Abraham
before they destroyed Sodom. And you also remember that Manna is called
angels food in the Psalms (Psm 78:25)? So for them to have other physical
abilities when in this world is not without precedent.
In one place on the site I went into how Jesus was male, circumcised, etc.,
and that Jesus is God in the flesh.
You ask me the "why's of God": "Why would they have had the ability to
impregnate women if there were no women in the first earth age?"
Because He said so.
Back to list of questions at top of page Can telling loved ones the truth now place them in spiritual danger in the Tribulation?
Mark writes:
Answer:
Hi Mark. Don't worry, you couldn't do any harm even if you tried (of
course you wouldn't). See Rev 3:7; only Jesus can open the truth up to
people and only He can close their eyes. Thank God that He doesn't lay
that awesome responsibility on our unable backs. Mark writes back:
REPLY:
Hi Mark. I feel for you, for I know that this is tearing you up
inside. I also feel that more needs be said on this matter.
You will notice in the Scripture that you referenced (and the other
parallel Scriptures regarding the matter) that a man's family will cause
him problems; however, the wife is not listed among the family
members, for she has not the right.
Why? Because he is over her, she is supposed to be subservient to
him. They became one flesh at marriage and cannot be divided, she
is to follow her husband in matters spiritual. If he is not a
Christian she is free to divorce him, but she is not to usurp the man's
authority in the household. I know that this seems archaic in
these confusing times of gender-role reversal. Your wife is
disobedient not only to you but to the Scriptures of life.
The man is to lead the woman, not the other way around. Remember
Eve.
Gen 3:17
Satan used Eve to deceive and lead astray Adam, who at the first
remained obedient to the Lord.
Scripture warns us that satan will try this with us and our wives if we
let our guard down. Remember Adam.
Micah 7:5
If your wife is such a Christian woman then ask her how she reasons the
below Scripture away.
Eph 5:33
Telling you to withhold truth, which the Holy Spirit has caused you
to believe, which God proved through His Scriptures, from your children
is certainly not reverencing you nor your authority and
responsibility as a man, Christian, and husband. She should
consider herself chastised. You may tell her I said so.
If you are teaching false doctrine to the children then she should
divorce you if you cannot be corrected -- but if you aren't teaching
false doctrine then she should get in her place as a wife and let you
run your family as the Lord leads.
What you need to do is study hard so that you can show her in
the Scriptures where what you believe is true is indeed
truth from God. If she disputes with God's Word then she is in
worse shape than if she merely was disobedient to the marriage vow and
God's natural order of mankind in marriage.
You are responsible not only for yourself, but also your children until
they come of age to decide upon their own. You are also
responsible for your wife, her being the weaker vessel placed in
your care by God.
Are we men of the church not even so with the Lord Jesus
Christ? He would not let false doctrines remain unchallenged, and
He would not withhold truth simply to 'get along' with us. God
divorced His wife Israel. And as the church is to Christ so
too is your wife unto you.
Am I telling you to get divorced? No, I am telling you to lead.
Back to list of questions at top of page Was Adam the first human?
I.S. writes (regarding our Mankind; two separate 'creation events' study):
Answer:
But anyway, you read the Scripture lightly, separating the individual words from the greater sentence and thus losing the meaning and the thought that the Author was intending to the reader. This is not an uncommon phenomenon, but it has caused you here to become confused. Let's visit the Scripture together:
Ok, what is Paul saying? What is the subject? for we cannot excise a word from a sentence and hope to grasp the greater meaning. And more than that, we cannot take a verse out of a Scripture. Let's not cut Paul off after a single verse, or worse, as you have done, to cut Paul off in the middle of a verse even! Let's look at a more complete thought
We see in the Scripture that Jesus and Adam are compared, so to speak, they are compared and contrasted. We see that they have something in common yet there is a difference between them.
I ask you, is the subject here the creation of humans on this planet, or, is the subject here God's plan for dealing with mankind in regards to the eternity? If, as you suppose, that the "The first man Adam was made a living soul" means that Adam was the first person on the earth, then you must also take that "the last Adam was made a quickening spirit" to mean that Jesus was the last person on the earth. Obviously there is a problem with your interpretation, for the Scriptures cannot fail; to read them as you have is to charge God with error. For we all know that there have been billions of persons since Christ Jesus, but those of us who understand Genesis also know that there many persons before Adam as well. (Did not Cain find enough to build and people a city shortly after being expelled from Adam and Eve's region?) This is the great problem of your interpretation, you are trying to make the Scriptures align with what you have been taught of man instead of letting the Scriptures reprove all men and clarify, edify, and teach the man of God that which the Holy Spirit would have him understand. Paul is saying that there were two Adams, one was a man and one was Spirit, though both called Adam; one was the first and one was the Last (not second, but Last!). You can no more derive out of this Scripture that Adam was the first person than you can derive out of it that Jesus was the last person; this just simply is not the subject here. If the creation of people were the subject then none could have been born after Jesus. Paul is not saying what you claimed, for you omitted a word; you said: "and through that verse, that Adam, really IS a FIRST MAN!" No, Paul did not say that Adam was the first man, he said that Adam was the first man Adam. There is a difference, for as you have noticed in our study (Mankind; two separate creation events) Adam was indeed the first man Adam, but not the first man, there were people on this earth before Adam, but there were not yet any Adamites. Suppose I said that the first people of the Americas (the North American man) were here in pre-1 millennium b.c. Can I then be read as saying that the first humans were from before 1 M. b.c.? No, I cannot; that simply was not the subject of my statement. Well, the same goes for our Scripture. Adam was the first Adam, he was a man; Christ Jesus was the LAST Adam, He was the Lord from Heaven. Why read more into the Scripture than is there?
Jesus was the last Adam, not the last man Adam. Adam was the first Adam and he indeed was but a man. The subject is Adam, not mankind. It's just saying that Adam was a man and Jesus was so much more. What the Scripture is saying is that Jesus and Adam were of the same mission, to help mankind. Adam failed to help the 6th day creation and couldn't even help himself; Jesus succeeded and helped all whom would believe upon Him. My name is Nick, if I wrote that the first man Nick was a handsome guy; would I really be saying that Nick was the first human being on the planet? No, of course not, the subject is Nick' handsomeness, and the fact that he was the first named or regarded as Nick; not the order of creation. The fact that "adam" means "man" in the Hebrew adds not a little confusion to the matter. The subject in our Scripture is Adam's "living soul" and Jesus' "quickening spirit," not who was first on the planet. For you may notice that the 6th day creation (the Gentiles) were not endowed with this "living soul, no such "breath of life" was placed into the 6th day creation at the first. Their "breath of life" comes now through the resurrect Christ, but Adam was given it at the first.
The Gentiles created, male and female created at the same time.
God finishes, all is in place.
What's this, "there was not a man to till the ground"? Error in the Scripture? Don't be silly, the only error is in man's interpretations of God's truth! Many a man thinks that Genesis chapter two is just a repeat of Genesis chapter one. Why? he did not learn that from reading the two chapters, he learned from a man. Ask that man (or men) why it is that the order of the plants, animals, and people created is different between Genesis chapters one and two? Will we charge God with mistake so as to hang on to the traditions of ungodly uninspired men at the pulpits of these beguiled times? While there are men created on the sixth day, we see that there was no man to till the soil. Adam is not here yet, for Adam was to till the soil in the Garden of Eden "...and put him into the garden of Eden to dress it and to keep it." (Gen 2:15); this was not offered to the 6th day creation.
We see Adam was given something that the others were not. Why? Because the others had by now failed, God sent Adam to lead the others back. He failed miserable at the onset, for he was but a man himself. God would need to send greater than Adam to defeat satan and redeem His children. That would happen 4000 years later, when the last Adam would be sent, but much work need be done first.
The Garden of God, paradise on earth, the Garden of Eden is set up upon the earth. The plan for the salvation of mankind is begun. Satan will see this assault and move to counter it. Adam whom was FORMED (not created) is placed in this paradise, but as we know Adam would not only forfeit his right to physical and eternal life, but also forfeited his place in the paradise of God. But be happy, for through the Last Adam Jesus Christ, all, including the First man Adam and all men before him can be reunited into the paradise of Heaven. It is the whole salvation issue that is being spoke of in our Corinthians Scripture. At the first Israel was chosen of God, but the Gentiles had to wait until God redeemed them through the Messiah. The whole of Paul's writings declare this fact. Among other things the Scripture shows the lineage of Jesus from Adam, as does Luke chapter 3. But the Last Adam Jesus was so much more than the first Adam who was only a man; for Jesus was the last Adam and He was both God and man, the first Adam was only flesh and was not God. Hence Jesus is not referred to as the last man Adam, but simply the Last Adam. It is also showing the Divinity of Christ Jesus. Now I suspect that you study from one of the corrupted newer Bible versions, like the NIV perhaps. For if you used the trusted King James Bible version then you could have read down two verses and seen Paul tell you what I basically just did But look how the corrupt NIV renders this Scripture. Compare the KJV (King James Version) with the NIV (New International Version):
See our study: Adulterations in the Newer Bible Versions... Now since you quoted the Greek, I will supply the Scripture below, as such, so that other's can see what you mean: Our Scripture:
Can you see what is being drawn out? This Scripture has nothing to do with who was the first human being on the planet, it has to do with God's plan of salvation for His mankind and those two whom He sent. Eve came of Adam and it was said of her: "Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing..." (1 Tim 2:15). From her womb came Salvation, Christ Jesus 4000 years later was born of the line of Adam; that is why Eve was called "the mother of all living" (Gen 3:20), for through her womb would be born Him who can make alive all that He wills. Now I know that some who have a problem with the two creation events teaching will interpret that Scripture to mean that Eve was the first mother on earth so therefore she was the mother of all living. This is incorrect, they forget about Adam; Eve wasn't Adam's mother, grandmother, nor great-grandmother etc., therefore she could not be the mother of all living as some reason it. That interpretation is flawed. Eve can only be the mother of all through her great descendant, Jesus Christ, whom is able to give life to all. Eve was not the first female human on the planet and Adam was not the first male; he was the first Adam, but not the first of the species human. When
the man Adam failed miserably from the very first, God came Himself in the flesh
(Jesus) to finish
the work of salvation of His creation. Man is only capable of ruin, only
God can save the destroyed. And now through the Last Adam all
can come to sure salvation. For while the first Adam sinned, the Last Adam
did not, though both were tempted of the devil. "...If thou be the Son of God..." (Matt 4:3) The first man Adam brought death and sin, the Last Adam brought forgiveness and eternal life. The first died for his own sin, the Last for the sins of others; for he knew not sin Himself. So no, Ms. I.S., I don't want you to 'disagree with Apostle Paul,' the purpose of our little Bible study group here on the 'Net is that you would first understand him then come to agreement with what he actually said. Perhaps you ought to re-read the Mankind; two separate creation events study? Back to list of questions at top of page Was Jesus God?
T.S. writes (Referring to our study: The Holy Spirit & The Holy Trinity ):
Answer: Hi T.S.: In an accompanying e-mail you mentioned that hadn't fully read the study. And I know that this is a difficult subject. But I think that if you read the study (not just skimmed it) you would find that your questions/objections are all covered with Scripture in the study itself. I know what many have been taught, and I know that it is in disagreement with the Bible study (and the Bible for that matter), but what can I do about that, save to document the truth in the Scriptures that I would hope all Christians take as the last word on every subject. You quote from John 1:1, but you left off the pertinent words to my point. Observe:
Ok, we know that Jesus was the Word, and in the above it says that the Word was God, i.e., Jesus was God. Seems pretty plain and clear to me "the Word was God"; it’s just that the traditions of men have skewed the truth, and men love men’s words more than God’s Word. Jesus was God in the flesh, His name Immanuel even means "God with us." Jesus is the Greek for the Hebrew Yehoshua which means "Yehovah the Savior."
Thomas called Jesus "my God" and was commended for believing it. Jesus was called "the mighty God" and the "everlasting Father" in the Old Testament; Jesus said that He was God. But yet many Christians somehow do not know that Jesus was God in the flesh.
Even the unsaved Jews knew that Jesus was calling Himself God, why don’t saved Christians today know it; whence cometh that spirit?
He is God, and they killed His flesh body for it. The Jews of time had twisted the Old Testament religion of the Hebrews for their own ends, they left out God; and when He came, as it was prophesied in the Hebrew Old Testament Scriptures, they killed Him. Just like Jews today see no need for The Savior, they believe that the 'Jewish' people are collectively the Messiah. How far satan has gotten with them! They shall see when He returns with a rod of iron and a sword of truth. Many Christians are heading in the same direction with their corruption of God's Word. Satan did it once and it brought about an Advent, he is doing it again and it shall bring about the Second Advent. When Christianity finally fails miserably, God shall return. Rapturists suppose that because they don't see much mention of the 'Church' in the book of Revelation that it has been taken out (Raptured); what they cannot see is that the Church is in Revelation, but that it is wholly corrupted, it is their legacy. Is it not even corrupt today? And Jesus forgave sins; whom but God can forgive sin? Jesus never asked God to forgive the sins, He (Jesus) simply forgave the sins Himself; none but God can do this. That is why the Pharisees got mad at Jesus, they didn’t know the authority that Jesus had as God, so they accused Him of blasphemy. And I didn’t say that God "got permission" from the angels, i.e., regarding your comment "Why would God ask the Angels ..??? what he should do..?" I said that God was not speaking to Himself in Genesis 1:26, He was speaking to the angels. WE were the angels before being born of flesh, we are made in the image of our angelic bodies. Didn’t you ever wonder why, that if we were all modeled after the same entity, how come we all look so different? God does all the creating, I did not say that angels created anything (just to clear that up aforehand). The word "God" in Genesis 1:26 is ‘Elohim and it is plural Hebrew word.
Elohiym is even translated once in the King James Bible as "angels":
Because of the plurality of the word many seek to 'correct' the Scripture by saying that it is speaking of Jesus, God, and the Holy Spirit. Even though Jesus Himself said that God was One; and John wrote by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are One, and God said that God was One. But man says that God is three. What does it matter what man may say when God says differently? The church has wholly failed God and now we have an entire Christian world that just doesn't understand the Scriptures. Whence came that spirit?
In the below Scripture of Gen 1:27, we see that the King James translators placed a word in italics; that word is "own", and when a word in the King James Bible is in italics it means that the Translators ADDED the word to make the verse read better in English. Unfortunately, when you add words you inadvertently add your own option and interpretation into it. But on the other hand, many times it is necessary to add English words when translating the Hebrew and Greek because oftentimes one Hebrew or Greek word cannot be translated with only one English word. The KJV Translators were faithful in that they placed the added words in italics so that the reader would know that they are added. They were good men of God, not like the vipers that made the newer Bible versions (See: Adulterations in the Newer Bible Versions... ).
Perhaps you should read the whole The Holy Spirit & The Holy Trinity study, for it covers so much ground on this topic; 50 pages as you say. You are going to have to go to the back of the class for making conclusions before finishing the study. :o) God bless you and your study of His Word.
Back to list of questions at top of page Would Adam have lived forever?
Hello, you are not off-base. What I would clarify though is that Adam indeed would have lived forever had he not sinned, for in Genesis 6:3 God announces that Adam's 'days' shall be 120 years. Adam died exactly 120 years from that time at the age of 930 years old.
In the Companion Bible there is an appendix that touches on this subject:
Back to list of questions at top of page The "born of the water" in John 3:5
The
man, Nicodemus then speaks of the womb and Jesus does not correct him. Jesus
acknowledges that man will not go through the womb for this second birth.
In verse 10 above, Jesus acknowledges that Nicodemus is a ‘master of Israel', i.e., a teacher of the Law (Torah - Old Testament). Jesus chastised Nicodemus for not knowing the thing that Jesus was telling him. Jesus expected Nicodemus to know of the spiritual re-birth from the OLD TESTAMENT, for Nicodemus had not seen the New Testament which was not written for years after this day. In the Old Testament this new birth of the Spirit is written of, the Prophets of old foretold of this marvelous work of God that was to be done. Below are two Scriptural allusions to this spiritual birth (born again, i.e., born from above):
David's verse 13 above is spoken of again by James 1000 years later:
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